نماذج اختبارات مزاوله المهنه فني اشعه

Radiography Technology Bachelor Degree(BSc.) Examination Exam Number: (BSc-A) Select the best answer  :   

1- The joint which is found on the lateral end of the clavicle is: 

 A. Humeroscapular   B. Glenohumeral  C. Acromioclavicular   D. Sternoclavic ular  E. Corocoid   

2- The Half-Life is: 

  •  A. The time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei to increase by a factor of 2 
  • B. The time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei to decrease by a factor of 2 
  • C. The decay constant multiplied by the natural logarithm of 2 
  • D. The reciprocal of the decay constant  E. The time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei to decrease by a factor of 4   

3- The extreme outermost lower corner of each lung is called:

        A. Costopherenic angle          B. Apex  C. Base                                    D. Hilar region  E. Middle lobe  

 4-………… is very useful for evaluating cerebral aneurysm and vascular occlusive disease:  

 A. Fluoroscopy  B. Projection radiography  C. MRA  D. CT  E. Conventional tomography    

5- The cranial bone which contains the foramen magnum is:  A. Frontal bone                 B. Zygomatic bone  C. Right parietal bone           D. Left parietal bone  E. Occipital bone   

6- The special ultrasound machine that is used to show how blood is flowing through the vessels is known as:  A. Sonogram  B. Doppler ultrasound  C. Transrectal ultrasound  D. Transvaginal ultrasound  E. Mouller ultrasound 

7The main function of the transducer is to:

  A. Receive and emit sound  B. Display the image  C. Store the image  D. Change the image  E. Store and change image   

8- The best projection to demonstrate sublaxation of acromio clavicular joint is:  

A. Lateral  B. Lateral oblique  C. Infro-superior  D. Postero-anterior with weight bearing  E. Antero-posterior with weight bearing   

9- The ischial tuberosity corresponds with the vertebral level of:  A. T9-10                           B. S1-2  C. L2-3                            D. 1 to 2 inches inferior to distal coccyx   E. L5  

10-The olecranon process of the ulna is situated ……….. to the styloid process of the radius:

 A. Lateral  B. Anterior  C. Distal  D. Dorsal  E. Proximal  

11- The radioactive therapeutic agent that is used to relieve pain resulting from bone metastases is: 

 A. Calcium 40   B. Strontium-89  C. Iodine-131  D. Uranium-239  E. Barium-46  

 12- If the central ray is directed perpendicular to mid-line at the level of the anterior superior iliac crest the view taken is:   

A. Dorsal spine  B. Coned down fifth lumbar spine  C. AP hip  D. Lateral hip  E. AP pelvis 

13- In antero-posterior of coccyx the direction of central ray is:   

 A. Vertical 90 degrees  B. 10-20 degrees cephalic  C. 15 degrees cephalic  D. 15 degrees caudal  E. 25 degrees caudal   

14- The basic projections of calcaneus are: 

 A. Antero-posterior and lateral   B. Anterior oblique and lateral  C. Postero-anterior and lateral  D. Axial and lateral  E. Axial and oblique      

 15- The facial bone that is also known as the cheek bone is:  A. Frontal bone               B. Maxilla  C. Zygomatic bone                  D. Sphenoid  E. Temporal    

16- In the case of fracture of humerus neck (abduction of arm is possible) we do:   

A. Antero-posterior and lateral   B. Postero-anterior and lateral            C. Antero-posterior and infero-superior    D. Antero-posterior and lateral oblique   E. Infero-superior and lateral    

17- If we increase FFD from 40 to 80 inches what is the specific effect to radiograph density (other factors are not changed):  .

   A. Increase density by 50%                     B. Decrease density to 50%  C. Decrease density to 25%                D. Increase density by 25%  E. No effect on density   

18- Three projections are taken when there is question of acute abdominal pain; they are:  recumbent anteroposterior, lateral and: 

 A. AP inverted view  B. Lateral inverted view  C. Lateral erect  D. Right lateral decubitus  E. AP Erect 

19- To reduce the scan time in MRI imaging we have to:   

A. Use the shortest TR possible  B. Use the highest TR possible  C. Use special RF coils  D. Not use RF coils  E. Patient must be prone  

 20- One absolute contra-indication for MRI is:  

A. Sickle cell crisis  B. Pregnancy  C. Intracranial aneurysm clips  D. Cardiac pacemaker  E. Very sick patients  

 21- If the two anterior clinoid processes are not superimposed in lateral skull it means:  

A. High kV used   B. High mA used   C. Incorrect position   D. Correct projection   E. No grid used   

22- The CT number for water when expressed as a Hounsfield unit (HU) has a value of: 

A. -1000  B. -500  C. 0  D. +500  E. +1000   

23- The flexion recommended for lateral projection of knee is:  A. 20-300                     B. 35-400  C. 450                         D. 600  E. No flexion 

  24- The malleoli are used as landmarks when making a radiograph of:   

  A. AP ankle                     B. PA knee  C. AP shoulder                D. AP elbow   E. AP foot

25- The apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae are best visualized in:  A. Lateral views    B. Flexion views  C. Oblique views  D. Lateral bending views    E. Extension views  

26- Protective material in walls surrounding diagnostic x-ray machines is usually:  

A. Tungsten  B. Plaster  C. Lead  D. Glass      E. E. Steel   

27- We do lordotic view for chest to demonstrate:

  A. Apices of lungs  B. Heart  C. Fluid level  D. Middle lobe of left lung  E. Left lower lobe of lift lung  

 28-If we do a radiograph for the knee joint with 10 mAs and we get an over exposed film, which of the following changes will improve the image when we repeat:    

   A. Increase to 15 mAs                        B. Decrease to 7 mAs  C. Decrease to 3 mAs                  D. Increase to 20 mAs  E. mAs has no effect  ِ

 29- In the anteroposterior (AP) oblique views of the sacroiliac joints, the affected side must be: 

 A. Away from the film               B. Toward the film  C. Parallel to the film              D. 60 degrees toward the film  E. 10 degrees toward the film   

30- In Waters position for maxillary sinuses, the radiographic base line forms an angle of …………… with the plane of the film:  A. 25 degrees  B. 27 degrees  C. 30 degrees  D. 45 degrees  E. 37 degrees 

31- The loading bench must be:  A. Cool  B. Hot  C. Wet  D. Dry  E. Cool and wet   31- The film emulsion is composed of:  A. Potassium bromide  B. Silver halide plus gelatin   C. Silver plus gelatin  D. Mylar  E. Potassium hydroxide  

  32- The sharpness of a radiographic image is decreased by the use of: 

 A. A grid  B. Decrease of 10 Kv  C. Increase filtration  D. Decrease of 20 Kv  E. Large focal spot  

 33- Arthrography is done by injecting contrast media into:  A. The bone              B. The joint space  C. The ligaments                             D. Muscular vascia  E. Surrounding muscles  

  34- The specific organ(s) in both genders that receives the greatest dose in A.P upper G.I.T projections is (are):  A. Lungs                    B. Ovaries  C. Testes  D. Bone marrow      E. Kidneys   

35-The frequency of ultrasound which is produced by routine ultrasound machines is more than: 

 A. One Megahertz  B. 10 Megahertz  C. 20 Megahertz  D. 30 Megahertz  E. 40 Megahertz 

36- We do T-tube examination for biliary system post operative by:  A. 3 days                            B. 10 days  C. 15 days                           D. 20 days  E. 30 days      

 37- The contrast media for myelogram is:  A. Pantopaque  B. Gastrografin  C. Cholografin  D. Barium  E. Hypaque  

   38-The first CT image was demonstrated by:    A. Alan Cormack  B. Raymond Damadian  C. Geodfrey Houndsfield   D. Frank Lauterbur  E. Larry Rothenberg  

 39- Cystoscopy would likely be involved in the examination called:  A. Cholecystography  B. Angiography  C. Salpingograhy  D. Retrograde urography  E. K.U.B  

 40- For an abdominal ultrasound exam, the patient may need to:  A. Drink a large amount of water  B. Fast for six hours  C. Eat a large amount of food  D. Drink milk  E. Eat a fatty meal   

41- In the nephrogram phase (10 min) in intra-venous pyelography (I.V.P) we see:  A. Urinary bladder  B. Kidney and calculuses  C. Urters  D. Renal artery  E. Visco-urter junction 

42- The traditional unit used to measure radiation exposure in air is:    A. Rad  B. Roentgen  C. Milliampere  D. Gray  E. Sievert  

 43- The developer acts on the emulsion causing the image to become:     A. Latent          B. Visible  C. Permanent              D. Invisible  E. No effect   

44- The imaging time in nuclear medicine tests is usually in the range of:  A. 5 to 10 minutes  B. One day  C. One to two hours  D. Three to four hours  E. 20 to 45 minutes  

 45- The filament is made of:  A. Tungsten   B. Molybdenum  C. Copper   D. Lead  E. Aluminum   

46- One of the functions of oil in x-ray tube is:  A. Electrical isolation    B. Electrical conduction   C. Cooling   D. A and C  E. Controlling image quality   

47-The appearance of Bucky lines in a radiograph means:            A. Low Kv is used  B. Bucky switch on  C. Bucky switch off  D. High Kv is used  E. Low exposure time is used     

49- The principal advantage of CT over projection radiography is:       A. Contrast resolution  B. Energy resolution.  C. Speed of image acquisition  D. Spatial resolution  E. Temporal resolution   

50- The image modality that is likely to have less scatter radiation affecting the image is:   A. Fluoroscopy  B. Projection radiography  C. Conventional tomography  D. CT  E. Radioisotope emission tomography    

51- A barium enema should not be performed in case of:  A. Bleeding                          B. Acute appendicitis  C. Tuberculosis                         D. Pyelitis  E. Asthma   

52- The following is an input device for use with the CT imager:   A. Cathode ray tube   B. Keyboard  C. Magnetic desk  D. Optical desk  E. Video display terminal   

53- The recommended collimation for imaging the abdomen by CT is approximately:   A. 1 mm   B. 4-5 mm  C. 2-3 mm  D. 8-10 mm  E. 6-7 mm  

 54- The unit of measuring the magnetic field is:  A. Kilovolt  B. Milliampere   C. Rad  D. Tesla  E. Rem   

55- The contrast media used in imaging the central nervous system by MRI is:   A. Gastro-grafine   B. Ba-sulphate  C. Castor oil  D. Biligram  E. Gadolinium

56- The central ray for Schuller for mastoid should be:     A. Perpendicular to film                      B. 10-15o cephalic  C. 15o caudal                                      D. 25-30o caudal   E. 12o cephalic      

57- If we want to examine the urinary bladder (size and shape) by ultrasound the patient must be:  A. Full bladder  B. Empty bladder  C. Fasting for six hours  D. 

Fasting for 12 hours  E. Examined during mucturation  

 58- On longitudinal ultrasound scan, the prostate appears …………. to urinary bladder:  A. Anterior  B. Above  C. Right  D. Left  E. Posterior   

59-The principle of image production in nuclear medicine is based on:  A. Radiation emitted from a radioactive substance given to the patient  B. X-ray passing through patient  C. High magnetic field energy  D. Infrared ray passing through patient    E. Using high energy of sound waves   

60- The projection of TMJ’s which requires that the skull be kept in true lateral is:     A. Anterior oblique                 B. Lateral with horizontal beam  C. Lateral oblique                   D. Modified Towne  E. Schuller        

  61- The film and screen must be in complete contact to achieve maximum: A. Resolution    B. Contrast C. Transparence  D. Sharpness E. Protection  

نماذج إختبارات مزاولة المهنةبكالوريوس صيدله اليمن

بســم الله الرحمن الرحيم

Choose the correct answer for question (1-90)
The following Antidote is used in case of Diazepam overdose:
Glucagon
Naloxone
Protamine Sulfate
Leucovorin
Flumazenil

Hairmax is the brand name of the following drug:
Finasteride
Minoxidil
Bifonazole
Permethrin
Benzyl Benzoate

Hairmax is manufactured by:-
Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
Pharmacare PLC
Beit Jala Pharmaceutical Company
Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
Megapharm.

State which of the following match is not correct:
Amarrex= Glimepiride
Tericox= Etoricoxib
Profort = Cefixime
Voryn = Diclofenac sodium
Tinasil=Terbinafine

State which of the following Pharmaceutical abbreviation is not correct:
p.r.n=as needed
o.d=each eye
q.o.d=once daily
a.c=before meals
b+c

The drug Mabthera is manufactured by:-
GSK
Novartis Pharma
Sanofi Aventis
Roche
Abbot

The drug Trovan is classified as a/an:-
Statin type hypercholestrolemic agent
Statin type hypocholestrolemic agent
Antiasthmatic agent
Calcium antagonist hypotensive agent
NSAID

Read the following prescription carefully then answer questions (8-11)

Rx
Movalis 7.5 mg Tab
1 Tab q.d
for 20 days

The drug Movalis contains the following active ingredient:
Misoprostol
Minoxidil
Meloxicam
Alprazolam
Indomethacin

The drug Movalis is used for the treatment of:-
Hypertension
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Parkinson’s disease
Gastrointestinal and duodenal ulcers
Depression

Movalis is manufactured locally by:
BPC
Jepharm
Pharmacare
BJP
Megapharm

According to the prescription, the pharmacist should dispense:
15 Tab
20 Tab
30 Tab
40 Tab
60 Tab

All of the following are side effects for Prednisone except:-
a. Skeletal muscle weakness
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Sodium retention
d. Peptic ulceration
e. Lowered resistance to infection.

All of the following are classified as Anti-viral drugs except:-
a. Tebivudine
b. Adefovir
c. Oseltamivir
d. Amikacin
e. Peginterferon alpha-2a

Serum enzyme tests that may aid in the diagnosis of Myocardial Infarction include:-
Alkaline Phosphatase
CPK(creatinine phosphokinase)
LDH (Lactic acid dehydrogenase)
a+b
b+c

Tinea Pedis is commonly known as:-
Athlete’s foot
corns
calluses
warts
blackheads

Signs and symptoms of “Caffeinism ” may include all of the following except :
Anxiety
Muscle twitching
Agitation
Restlessness
Cough

Parenteral drug products undergo what type of testing to ensure that all microorganisms have been destroyed or removed?
Clarity testing
Leaker testing
Pyrogen testing
Sterility testing
Solubility testing

نماذج إختبارات مزاولة المهنة

In the classification system for drug use during pregnancy, category X drugs are compounds for which:-
The possibility of fetal harm is remote
Animal, but not human, studies have shown adverse effects.
Animal, but not human, studies have shown teratogenic risk.
Both animal and human studies have shown that severe risk to the fetus clearly overweighs the benefits of the drug.
Evidence of human fetal risk exists, but life- threatening situations may necessitate use of the drug despite the risks.

Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside:-
Nifedipine
Digoxin
Flecainide
Cholestyramine
Warfarin

Read the following prescription carefully then answer questions (19-22)

Rx
Oflox E/D
ii gtts o.u q.i.d

Oflox eye drops contains the following active ingredient:

Tetrahydrazoline
Ofloxacin
Chloramphenicol
Sodium Cromoglycate
Naphazoline

According to the prescription, the patient should take the drug as follows:
Two drops in the right eye four times daily
Two drops in each eye four times a day
Two drops in the left eye once daily
Two drops in the right eye once daily
One drop in the left eye four times a day

Oflox is manufactured by:
Allergan Pharmaceuticals.
Sanofi Aventis
B.Braun
Roche
Novartis

A locally manufactured drug that contains the same active ingredient as Oflox include the following:-
Lomixin
Taricin
Ramacetine
Ultracin
b+d

True statements concerning Cimetidine and Ranitidine include:-
They are useful in the treatment of duodenal ulcers.
They may cause dizziness, mental confusion, and hepatic dysfunction
They are useful in the treatment of allergic reactions.
a+b
b+c

All of the following are considered common side effects for Codeine except:-
Miosis
Nausea
Diarrhea
Constipation
Addiction

  1. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be minimized by:-
    Adding Sodium Benzoate
    Increasing the viscosity of the suspension
    Reducing the particle size of the active ingredient
    a + c
    b + c

The drug Monozole contains the following active ingredient:-
Miconazole
Fluconazole
Metronidazole
Bifonazole
Clotrimazole

28.Monozole is manufactured by:-
Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
Pharmacare PLC
Beit Jala Pharmaceutical Company
Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
Megapharm

  1. Dimestil GEL is manufactured by:
    Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
    Pharmacare PLC
    Abbot
    Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
    Wyeth

30.Clindex Topical Solution is manufactured by:-
Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
Pharmacare PLC
Beit Jala Pharmaceuticals Company
Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
Megapharm

Which of the following matches is not true
cidalin – Mebhydrolin
Agispor – Miconazole
Duracef – Cefadroxil
Roxin – Piroxicam
Lactopar – Bromocriptin

Ventolin medicine is:
Alpha-receptor antagonist
Alpha-receptor agonist
Beta receptor antagonist
Beta-receptor agonist
Alpha and Beta-receptor agonist

Benzoyl Peroxide is used in the treatment of:
Psoriasis
Pinworms
Ance
Trichomonal infections
Seborrbeic dermatitis

Which of the following have the same mechanism of action as penicillins:
Lincomycin
Cefixime
Tetracyclines
Gentamicin
Ciprofloxacin

Fatal aplastic anemia is a toxic effect of one of the following drugs:
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin
Cefadroxil
Chloramphenicol
Disopyramide

Carbidopa acts as:
Reverse symptoms of parkinson’s disease
Exerts an anticholinergic action
dopa-decarboxylase inhibtor
aneuromuscular blocking agent
Is askeletal muscle relaxant

ًWhich of the following drugs reduces Uric acid production in the body:
Allopurinol
Phenylbutazone
Famotidine –
Propylthiouracil
Probencid

ًWhich of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Hyperthyriodism:
Dihydrotachysterol
Phytomenadione
Prednisone
Methimazole
Liothyronine

All of the following are Anabolic steroids except:
Stanozolol
Oxymetholone
Nandrolone
Norethindrone
Oxandrolone

Which of the following is a pure narcotic antagonist?
Butorphanol
Naloxone
Buprenorphine
Sufentanil
Nalbuphine HCI

Use of Organic Nitrates for a long period of time leads to
Hepatotoxicity
Tolerance
Nephrotoxicity
Visual Disturbance
Aplasic anemia

Cyproterone is classified as:
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogue
Anti estrogen
Estrogen
Progestin
Anti androgen

Which of the following is a side effect for clozapine drug:
Thrombocytopenia
Meningitis
Hypercalcemia
Hyperuricemia
Agranulocytosis

Atropine causes all of the following effects except
Cardiac Stimulation
Diminished Sweating
Mydriasis
Reduction of gastrointestinal tone
Stimulation of gastric secretion

Metronidazole:
It is an antifungal agent
It is indicated for the treatment of herpes zoster
It has antiprotozoal activity
A + B
All of the above

5000 nanograms equals:
50 Centigrams
5 micrograms
0.5 grams
5 milligrams
0.05 kilograms

What is the daily dose for a patient weighing 175 lb if the dose is 2 mg/kg/day:
78mg
350mg
160mg
770 mg
140mg

Hypertensive patients who can not use sodium salts can use
Ammonium chloride
Potassium iodide
Calcium chloride
Potassium chloride
Non of the above

Potassium supplements can be administered by all of the following except:
IV infusion
Effervescent tablets
IV bolus
Slow-release tablets PO
Elixirs PO

Suspension injection can be administered by all of the following routes except:
Intra-articular
Intravenous
Intradermal
Subcutaneous
Intramuscular

Which of the following drugs can be given safely to breast feeding women:
Narcotics
Alcohol
Barbiturates
Acetaminophen
Diazepam

Acetylcysteine is used in the Overdose of which of the following drugs:
Aspirin
Ferrous salt
Paracetamol
Benadryl
All of the above

All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of hyperglycemia except:
Glibenclamide
Metformin
Chlorpropamide
Glipizide
Glucagon

Phenolphthalein is classified as:
Antiinflammatory
Laxative
Analgesic
Antiseptic
Antibiotic

Give that t1/2 is 2 hours, how long will it take for 75% of drug to be eliminate ?
a. 12 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 16 hours
e. 2 hours

Swine flu is caused by serotype of influenza A virus:
a. H1N1
b. N1H1
c. H5N1
d. N5 H1
e. H3N2

The brand name of Oseltamivir is:
a. Paraflu
b. Flu
c. Tamiflu
d. Flumadine
e. Relenza

The Pharmaceutical abbreviation D.C. means:
a. Dispense
b. Discontinue
c. Dilute
d. Divide
e. Distilled water

To make 50% (v/v) alcohol form 5000ml of 85% (v/v) alcohol , you must add enough water to volume?
a. 500 ml
b. 1000 ml
c. 8500 ml
d. 850 ml
e. 3500 ml

If a cough syrup contains 0.24 g of codeine in 120cc , how milligrams are contained in each teaspoonful dose?
a. 10 mg
b.100mg
c. 2 mg
b.240 mg
e. 24 mg

If 12 tablets contain 3900 mg of aspirin, how many tablets should contain 975 mg?
a. 30
b. 10
c. 6
d. 9
e. 3

All of these agents are immunosuppresants Exept :
a. Prednisolone
b. Ciclosporin
c. Tacrolimus
d.Acyclovir
e. Basiliximab

The set of properties that characterize the effect of the drug on the body is called
a. Distribution
b.Permeation
c. Pharmacodynamics
d. Pharmacokinetics
e. Protonation

The process by which the amount of drug in the body is reduced after administration but before entering the systemic circulation is called?
a. Excretion
b. First-order elimination
c. First –pass sffect
d. Metabolism
e. Pharmacokinetics

Chronic use of which of the following drugs may increase the toxicity of Acetaminophen?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Ethanol
c. Ritonavir
d. Succinylcholine
e. Verapamil

Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following?
a. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle cramping
b. Increased cardiac rate
c. Increased gastric secretion
d. Pupillary constriction
e. Urinary frequency

Which one of the following does NOT cause cycloplegia (paralysis of accommodation) when used topically in the eye?
a. Atropine
b. Cyclopentolate
c. Physostigmine
d. Scopolamine
e. Tropicamide

Beta2-selective stimulants are often effective in :
a. Angina due to coronary insufficiency
b. Asthma
c. Chronic heart failure
d. Delayed or insufficiently strong labor
e. Raynaud’s syndrome

A drug that can cause renal damage in the fetus if given during pregnancy:
a. Captopril
b. Diazoxide
c. Fenoldopam
d. Guanethidine
e. Hydralazine

Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin?
a. Digoxin antibodies
b. Lidocaine
c. Magnesium
d. Phenytoin
e. Potassium

A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation:
a. Bromocriptine
b. Cimetidine
c. Ketanserin
d. Loratadine
e. Ondansetrone

Among NSAIDs , aspirin is unique because it
a. Irreversibly inhibits its target enzyme
b. Prevents episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use
c.Reduces the risk of colon cancer
d. Reduces fever
e. Selectively inhibits the COX-2 enzyme

One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have in common is:
a. Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
b.Tachycardia
c.Increased gastric acid secretion
d .Postural hypotension
e. Throbbing headache

Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route?
a. Cromolyn
b. Epinephrine
c. Ipratropium
d. Salmeterol
e. Theophylline

An analgesic and antipyretic drug that lacks an anti-inflammatory action is:
a . Acetaminophen
b. Celecoxib
c. Colchicine
d. Indomethacine
e. Probenecid

Which statement about phenytoin is accurate?
a. Displaces sulfonamides from plasma protein
b. Drug of choice in myoclonic seizures
c. Half- life is increased if used with Phenobarbital
d. Toxicity may occur with only small increments in dose
e. Non of the above

You are on your way to take an examination and you suddenly get an attack of diarrhea, and for an over-the-counter opioid with antidiarrheal action, you will be asking for?
a. Codeine
b. Dextromethorphan
c.Diphenoxylate
d.Loperamide
c.Nalbuphine

Morphine must be used with extreme caution in:
a. Adrenal insufficiency
b. Biliary tract surgery
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Late stage of labor
e. All of the above

Which of the following is MOST likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal insufficiency?
a. Cynocobalamin
b. Deferoxamine
c. Erythropoietin
d. Filgrastim
e. Oprelvekin

The risk of the following adverse reaction increases when selective –serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used in combination with mono amine oxidase inhibitors:
a. Antimuscarinic effects
b. Alpha adrenoceptor blocking effect
c. Reduced sexual function
d. Serotonin syndrome
e. Cardiac arrhythmias

An opium alkaloid solely used as a cough suppressant is:
a.Codeine
b. Thebaine
c. Noscapine
d. Papaverine
e. Dextromethorphan

Dexamethasone
a. Is less potent than prednisolone
b. Also has mineralocorticoid activity
c. Improves glucose tolerance
d. Is a naturally occurring glucocorticoid
e. Suppresses hypothalamo- hypophysico-adrenal axis

A drug that causes purgation by local irritation of small intestine:
a. Senna
b. Bisacodyl
c. Sorbitol
d. Castor oil
e. Aloes

Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is an antimetabolite:
a. Carmustine
b. Busulphan
c.Cisplatin
d. Fluorouracil
e. Vincristine

Which of the following Insulin preparations has the longest duration of action?
a. Insulin aspart
b. NPH insulin
c. Insulin Zinc suspention Lente
d. Glargine
e. Glulisine

Which of the following chelators has been correctly paired with the metal for whose poisoning it is clinically used:
a. Edetate calcium disodium—Mercury
b. Dimercaprol—Arsenic
c. Succimer —Gold
d.Penicillamine___Silver
e.Deferoxamine__Lead

The active ingredient in the drug Denacine is:
a. Gentamycin
b.Tetracycline HCL
c. Clindamycin Phosphate
d. Amikacin
e.Tobramycin

Denacine is used for
a. Acne vulgaris
b.Fungal infections
c.Psoriasis
d. Antiseptic
e. Dry eczema

Denacine is manufactured by:
a. Birzet Pharmaceutical company
b. Pharmacare PLC
c. Beit Jala Pharmaceuticals company
d. Gama Pharmaceutical company
e. Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company

Which of the following matches is not true

Monoloug – isosorbide mononitrate- CTS
Zinanat – Ceftriaxone-Glaxo
Indomid-indomethacin-Pharmacare
Primolut Nor-Norethisterone
B+C

8 أن لا ا

نماذج إختبارات مزاوله المهنه طب اسنان

نماذج إختبارات مزاوله المهنه طب اسنان 1

Components of local ansthesia armamentarium

A-syringe – B- needle- C- topical ansthesia -D – all of above

Pain on insertion

A,- dullneedle – B-use large gauge – C- applying topical anesthesia at the site of penetration – D – all of above

Gauge of needle that causes less pain

A,25guage- B, 27guage- C-30guage -D……..

Positive aspiration is due to

A-intravascular injection -B-intramuscular injection- C-all of above – D- non of above

the amount of ansthesia should be delivered is

A,1ml/min |B,3ml/min|C……..|D……..

Failure of ansthesia can be due to

(A,intravascular injection.- (B,intramuscular injection.- (C,all of above.-(D,non of above

nerve supply of first maxillary molar

A- superior-middle dental nerve – B superior-posterior dental nerve- C greater palatine nerve-D all of above

to extract maxillary first molar ansthesia should be delivered to

-A superior-middle dental nerve -B- superior-posterior dental nerve- C- greater palatine nerve-D – all of above

to extact maxillary canine ansthesia should be delivered to

– A,superior-middle dental nerve – B,superior-posterior dental nerve – C,greater palatine nerve – D,all of above – E, non of above

نماذج إختبارات مزاوله المهنه طب اسنان

to extact maxillary central incisor ansthesia should be delivered to

-A,unilateral superior-anterior dental nerve- B,bilateral superior-anterior dental nerve – C,greater palatine nerve – D,all of above

nerve not involved in extraction of mandibular first molar

-A,inferior alveolar nerve -B,long buccal nerve –C,lingual nerve -D,non all of above

اقرا ايضاً: نماذج امتحان مزاوله المهنه مساعدي اطباء+ تمريض

nerve not involved in RCT of mandibular first molar

A, inferior alveolar nerve -B,long buccal nerve – C ,lingual nerve -D,non of above

nerve not involved in RCT of mandibular canine

A……,B…….C…….D……

nerve supply of mandibular canineis

-A,inferior alveolar nerve – B,mental nerve – C,mandibular nerve- D……

nerve supply of mandibular first molar

A,mandibular nerve -B ,mental nerve – C,inferior alveolar nerve- D ,trigeminal nerve

all the answers are wrong about radicular cyst except

A,non-vital tooth-B,……C……..,D…

all the answers are wrong about keratocyst except

which answer is correct inregard to ranula

A,mandibluar gland-B,…….C,…….D………

before dentist handson tooth extraction he should know

A,x-Ray- B ,is the tooth indicated to be extracted. – C ,the extraction is simple or surgical.- D…..

before dentist diagnoses tooth extraction hes hould see

A,patientx-Ray -B-,is the tooth indicated to be extracted- C -,the extraction is simple or surgical – D….

Gat chewing is

-A- par a functional- B- psychological – C……D…….

causes of TMJ problems

TMJ reconstruction is indicated

dautrey produre is

نماذج إختبارات مزاوله المهنه طب اسنان 2

condylectomy is

arthrocentesis is

marsuplization is

A,removal of large cystِ -B -removal of small cyst. -C -used to protect facial structure.- D -used to prevent recurrence

the mostbio-tolerated material used in implant is

A,-titanium – B, porcelain- C,……D,……

Orthognathicsurgery is

distraction orthognathic/or distraction osteogensis surgeryisﻣﻨﻬﻢﻭﺍﺣﺪﺓﺍﻱ

organize the produre from the least severity to the highest((orthodontic treatment,orthognathic surgery,distraction osteogensis surgery”))

osseointegeration or implantation requires

-A bone quality and bone quantity -B expert doctor even the reisno bone quality-C,……-D,…….

factosto have agood prognosis of osse integration except

A,implant material -B -less tissue truma- C-primary stability- D – expert dentist

the most important memberin cleft lip and palate team is

-A- maxill of acial surgeon -B- periodentist -C,……..- D,- ENT specialist

team intreatment cleft lip and palatepatient consist of

-A- surgeon,orthodontist,ENT specialist- B-prosthodontist,paediatrician,maxillofacial surgeon,psychologist – C specialnurse,technician – D- all of above

primary concernin cleft lip and palate patientis

-A- feeding -B-breathing- C,…….D,…….

the most important mangement in treatment of cleft lip and palate patient

-A-parent mangement -B- hearing management- C,…….D,……..

all about sarcoidosis are wrong except

A- parotid gland only – B- causes salivary gland enlargement- C,…….D ,.. … …

all about Frey’ A , s syndrome are wrong except

parotidectomy -B , sweatonskin -C ,.. … D , bonly

what is correct inregard to Sojren syndrome

-A , it hasn’t related to malignancy – B – it is needed special treatment -C , all of above -D , non of above

نماذج إختبارات مزاوله المهنه اسنان